This may be semantics, but tramadol IS an opiate. As you say, its other effects are important in its analgesic activity (see quote from pharmacologist Mark Papich below), but the structure is an opioid structure, so that’s how its classed.

If you have references to say it is NOT an opiate, I’d love to see them - please email me on FB as I have a hard time finding this thread.

Quote from Papich:

“Tramadol is an analog of codeine that has multiple effects. Although tramadol has opiate-mediated effects, it has low abuse potential and is not registered as a controlled substance. It has become available in generic form, and is inexpensive. The exact mechanism of action to explain tramadol’s analgesic effects is uncertain. However, various possibilities exist: tramadol has mu-opioid receptor activity and it also inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine (NE) and serotonin (5-HT) (Laugessen et al, 2005). One of the isomers has a greater effect on serotonin reuptake and greater affinity for mu-opiate receptors. The other isomer is more potent for norepinephrine reuptake and less active for inhibiting serotonin reuptake. The metabolite (desmethyltramadol, also called M1) may have greater opiate effects than the parent drug (for example, 200x in opiate receptor binding). Taken together, the effects of tramadol may be explained through inhibition of serotonin reuptake (similar to fluoxetine and other antidepressant drugs), action on alpha-2 receptors (similar to medetomidine and xylazine), and activity for opiate mu-receptors (similar to morphine). There is considerable support for the serotonergic effects being important for the analgesic efficacy of tramadol. It can induce changes in the CNS similar to that observed with conventional antidepressant drugs (Rojas-Corrales et al, 2005; Oliva et al 2002). The serotonin-mediated effects may be synergistic with the opiate-mediated effects from the active M1 metabolite (Rojas-Corrales et al, 2005).”

I’m super happy at the clinic I work at and our team of front desk staff. Even more so after reading some of these stories. Our job is to provide services, (like filling prescriptions), sell products that people want, and help get the patients ready for visits. The Dr’s answer the questions and deal with the clients one on one, even if that means a phone call later to answer a question we cannot.

I also cannot imagine any of our Dr.s yelling at a client for anything. So unprofessional!

Except to say, well, my grandfather died in 1969 at the age of 63 of a heart condition so easily treated now that it’s a routine outpatient procedure.

I don’t want good ol’ doc “I don’t need any CE” treating me OR my pets, because I have some common sense. I spend a good deal of money on top-quality veterinary care — including the use of boarded specialists — but I do not spend one thin dime on unnecessary care.

There is a difference. Learn it.

How about how he routinely uses vitamin K to control intra-operative bleeding but doesn’t check to find out what CAUSED the bleeding in the first place?

Or the way he re-uses disposable syringes, or how he only sterilizes his instruments in cold solution, which he changes only once a month?

And he saves TONS of money by not having ANY gas anesthetic in his clinic whatsoever, nor any oxygen.

Or by saving up the contaminated phenobarbital from surgeries and uses it for euthanasias.

Or not keeping records or even his drug log book, as required by law.

And those are just the things he acknowledged when the State of Minnesota restricted his license.

You know, if we could actually get him to do it, his head might explode.

Or he might like it. Hard to tell.

I think he’d be considered “butch” if so.

I haven’t read all the above comments, so this may be repeat information….you might look into Comfortis for flea control. I just switched over to it because I don’t like the topicals either. The Comfortis is great so far, but I didn’t use it on my elderly dog. You probably wouldn’t want to use it for Bella.